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UPSC IES/ ESE 2019 Solutions (Prelims Exam)General Studies(GS) Paper1
1. A committee of 4 is to be formed from among
4 girls and 5 boys. What is the probability
that the committee will have number of boys
less than number of girls?
(A)2/9 (B)4/9 (C)4/5 (D)1/6
Ans:(D)
2. The solution of initial value problem:
$\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { x } } = 2 \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { t } } + \mathrm { u } ,$ where $\mathrm { u } ( \mathrm { x } , 0 ) = 6 \mathrm { e } ^ { - 3 \mathrm { x } }$ is
(A) $u = 6 e ^ { - 3 x + 1 }$
(B) $u = 6 e ^ { - ( 2 x + 2 t ) }$
(C) $u = 6 e ^ { - ( 3 x + 2 t ) }$
(D) $u = 6 e ^ { - ( 3 x - 2 t ) }$
ans:c
3. Polar form of the Cauchy-Riemann equations
is
(A) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$
(B) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$
(C) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$
(D) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$
Ans:B
4. If $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { z } )$ has a pole of order n at $z = \mathrm { a } ,$ then
Residue of function $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { z } )$ at a is
(A) Res $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { a } ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n - 1 } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { x = a }$
(B) Res $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { a } ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n - 1 ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n - 1 } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { z = a }$
$( \mathrm { C } ) \operatorname { Res } \mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { a } ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { x = 0 }$
(D) Res $f ( a ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n - 1 ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { z = a }$
Ans:(D)
5.Consider following diagram: AC is a diameter
of the large circle and AB=BC.
The ratio of areas of the large circle to the
small circle of a square is
(A) $4 : 1$
(B) $1 : 4$
(C) $2 : 1$
(D) $1 : 2$
Ans:(C)
6. Which term refers to a single person having
authority to oversee all aspects of a product's
production scheduling, inventory, dislocation
and sales?
(A) Project management
(B) Product management
(C) Commercial management
(D) Venture management
Ans: (B)
7. The lowest Eigen value of the $2 \times 2$ matrix
$\left[ \begin{array} { c c } { 4 } & { 2 } \\ { 1 } & { 3 } \end{array} \right]$ is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
Ans:(B)
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Mobile cranes are sophisticated machines
which are designed for lifting efficiently
2. Mobile cranes are a versatile and reliable
means of lifting on site
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
9. Which of the following statements are correct
for portable step-ladders?
1. Used on working platforms to gain height
above the protected edge
2. Used in the fully opened position
3. Should be of a length that ensures a
person's feet are not positioned any
higher than the second top rung
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
10. Consider the following Repeat Unit Structure:
What is polymer?
(A) Poly(amide-imide)
(B) Polyacrylonitrile
(C) Polybutadiene
(D) Polyethylene
Ans:(B)
11. Which of the following measures is/are
correct for using Mobile Equipment Working
Platform (MEWP)?
1. Tyres are properly inflated and air filled
2. SWL to be marked in platforms as
identification for carrying loads
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
12. Ozone layer present in the atmosphere
protects life on earth by not permitting
harmful radiations present in the sunlight to
penetrate through it. Ozone layer is formed
by the reaction of
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) on oxygen
(O2)
(B) Chlorine (Cl) on oxygen (O2)
(C) Solar Ultraviolet rays on Oxygen (O2)
(D) Chlorine nitrate (ClNO3) on oxygen (O2)
Ans: (C)
13. The insert command is used in 'Auto CAD to
insert
(A) Objects in the current life
(B) Objects in any life
(C) Blocks in any drawing file
(D) Blocks and wblocks in the current
drawing
Ans: (D)
14. A cone resting on its base in horizontal plane
(HP) is cut by a plane inclined to the axis and
parallel to one of its generators, the sectional
view will be
(A) Ellipse
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Circle
Ans: (B)
15. Consider the following components:
1. Knowledge of psychology
2. Knowledge of the theory of variation
3. Knowledge of process
4. Knowledge of the system and the theory
of optimization
Which of the above components comprise the
basis of Deming’s Systems of Profound
Knowledge?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (A)
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Greenfield Privatization or Incremental
Privatization denotes encouragement to
private sector in areas hitherto reserved
for Public Enterprises
2. Cold Privatization refers to measures
taken to distance Public Enterprises from
the Government
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
17. Which of the following steps are involved in
the product improvement cycle?
1. Sell it in the market
2. Determine quality of performance
3. Design the product based on customer
needs
4. Test it in the laboratory
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
18. Who is responsible for establishing,
documenting and maintaining procedures for
post-production handling functions such as
storage, packaging and delivery?
(A) Production Manager
(B) Marketing Manager
(C) Vendor
(D) Quality Supervisor
Ans: (C)
19. A unit produces packing boxes. Out of hourly
production of 4,000 boxes, 20 were found to
be non-conforming. If the inspector randomly
chooses a box from an hour's production, the
probability of it being non-conforming is
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.10
(C) 0.005
(D) 0.05
Ans: (C)
20. Which of the following are relevant factors
regarding quality in service sector?
1. Timeliness of service
2. Customer participation
3. Company personnel motivation
4. Company culture
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (C)
21. Which one of the following is a viable
alternative to term-loans and are instruments
for raising debt finance by large publicly
traded firms?
(A) Shares
(B) Debentures
(C) Asset loans
(D) Gold loans
Ans: (B)
22. Which one of the following makes the design,
assembly and operation of complex systems
feasible and practical?
(A) System Architecture
(B) Modularization
(C) Standardization
(D) Composition
Ans: (B)
23. Which one of the following schedules shows
the specific activities necessary to complete
an activity or work package?
(A) Project schedule
(B) Master schedule
(C) Task schedule
(D) Internal schedule
Ans: (A)
24. In stable ceramic crystal structure, a cation is
surrounded by three anions in the form of a
planar equilateral triangle. The ratio of the
cation-anion radius for the crystal is nearly
(A) 0.16
(B) 0.24
(C) 0.32
(D) 0.41
Ans: (A)
25. During tensile testing of a material, if cross sectional area of the specimen is doubled, the
load required to produce the same elongation
shall be
(A) Double
(B) Half
(C) Same
(D) Four times
Ans: (A)
26. When two or more chemically different
monomers are polymerized to form a cross
link polymer along with some byproduct such
as water, the process is known as
(A) Crystallographic Polymerization
(B) Addition polymerization
(C) Copolymerization
(D) Condensation polymerization
Ans: (D)
27. The number of atoms per unit length whose
centres lie on the direction vector for a
specific crystallographic direction is called
(A) Linear density
(B) Theoretical density
(C) Atomic density
(D) Avogadro number
Ans: (A)
28. Which of the following features of atoms
determine the degree to which the solute
atoms dissolve in the solvent atoms?
1. Atomic size factor
2. Crystal structure
3. Electronegativity
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
29. A state for ionic compounds wherein there is
the exact ratio of cations to anions as
predicted by the chemical formula is
(A) Electroneutrality
(B) Stoichiometry
(C) Equiliometry
(D) Frankel defect
Ans: (B)
30. The capacity of a material to absorb energy
when it is deformed elastically and then, upon
unloading, to have this energy recovered is
called
(A) Ductility
(B) Tensile strength
(C) Elasticity
(D) Resilience
Ans: (D)
31. In which one of the following phase
transformations, there are no compositional
alternations?
(A) Incongruent transformations
(B) Congruent transformations
(C) Non-equilibrium transformations
(D) Equilibrium transformations
Ans: (B)
32. In a simple cubic structure, atomic power
factor is nearly
(A) 0.9
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3
Ans: (C)
33. Which of the following are the advantages of
coding audiovisual objects?
1. It allows interaction with the content
2. It improves reusability and coding the
content
3. It allows content-based scalability
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
34. The transmission of real-time streams across
networks uses Bandwidth Allocation
Mechanism (BAM), which is based on
(A) Stream peak rate
(B) Bucket rate
(C) Token bucket depth
(D) Packet size
Ans: (D)
35. The quality of service provided in a computer
network is
(A) Presentation layer issue
(B) Session layer issue
(C) Network layer issue
(D) Data link layer issue
Ans: (D)
36. The Pre-echo PE distortions in audio signal
represents the
(A) Theoretical limit on compressibility of
particular signals
(B) Imaginary components of a signal
(C) Critical band analysis of a signal
(D) Histogram of the signals
Ans: (A)
37. In a computer network, a point-to-point
transmission, with one sender and one
receiver is called
(A) Unicasting
(B) Multicasing
(C) Broadcasting
(D) Internetworking
Ans: (A)
38. The Protocol (http), the DNS name of the
host, and the file name is identified through
(A) Uniform Resource Locator
(B) Web Browser
(C) Web Server
(D) IP address
Ans: (A)
39. The traditional way to handle forms and other
interactive Web pages is a system called
(A) Graphical User Interface
(B) Common Gateway Interface
(C) Text Based User Interface
(D) Command Line Interface
Ans: (A)
40. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) which encrypts
the data by using a block cipher is used in
(A) FTP security
(B) e-mail security
(C) Browser security
(D) Bluetooth security
Ans: (B)
41. The core elements of high-level programming
languages are
(A) Keywords, Expression and Punctuation
(B) Functions, Keywords and Operators
(C) Keywords, Operators and Punctuation
(D) Functions, Expressions and Operators
Ans: (B)
42. The philosophical study of beliefs and
knowledge is better known as
(A) Ontology
(B) Epistemology
(C) Entomology
(D) Etymology
Ans: (B)
43. One branch of ethical philosophy claims that
is possible to know right from wrong or good
from bad in a very clear and objective
manner, is called
(A) Non-Cognitivism
(B) Ethical Pluralism
(C) Cognitivism
(D) Utilitarianism
Ans: (B)
44. Consider the following statements regarding
‘Engineering Ethics’
1. It is the activity of understanding moral
values
2. It resolves the moral issues and justifies
moral judgments
3. It would refer to the set of specifically
moral problems and issues related to
Engineering.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (D)
45. A situation where very high prices are
charged from customers for a limited period
of time is known as
(A) Gouging
(B) Zipping
(B) Bamboozing
(D) Hoodwinking
Ans: (A)
46. Consider the following steps for an individual
regarding preparation for disclosure of
unethical behavior:
1. Study and document the facts and
formulate a plan for an appeal
2. Take up the matter with higher
management
3. Discuss the matter with immediate
supervisor
4. If the internal appeal does not resolve the
conflict, then he should notify the
company that he intends to continue with
an external review of the problem.
What is the correct sequence of order of the
above steps?
(A) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(B) 1, 3, 2 and 4
(C) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (B)
47. Which of the following are the attributes of a
profession?
1. The work requires sophisticated skills,
use of judgment and exercise of
discretion
2. Membership in the profession does not
require extensive formal education as
well as practical training
3. There are set standards for admission to
the profession and conduct for members
4. Significant public good results from
practice of the profession.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (C)
48. What are the core qualities of a professional
practitioner?
1. Integrity both with themselves and with
others
2. Independent to be free of secondary
interests with other parties
3. Competence
4. Discretion-care with communications
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (A)
49. When should whistle blowing be attempted?
1. There must be a clear and great harm that
can be avoided
2. The whistleblower must be in a clear
position to report on the problem
3. The whistleblower must have a
reasonable chance of success in stopping
the harmful activity
4. The whistleblower feels that all other lines of
action within the context of the organization
have been explored and shut off
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (B)
50. Which of the following are the salient features
of the patent Act 1970?
1. It codifies inventors which are not
patentable
2. It provides for endorsement of patent
with the words ‘license of right’
3. It provides for revocations of patents in
public interest
4. It has provision for validity period also
for the patents
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (A)
Directions:
Each of the next Ten (10) items consists
of two statements, one labelled as the
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement
(II)’.
You are to examine these two statements
carefully and select the answers to these items
using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both, Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are individually true and Statement (II)
is the correct explanation of Statement
(I)
(B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are individually true but Statement (II)
is not the correct explanation of
Statement (I)
(C) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false
(D) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true
51. Statement. (I): All projects have constraints
or limitations that inhibit their ability to reach
goals and objectives.
Statement (II): Time and money are
universal constraints of projects.
Ans: (A)
52. Statement (I): Training should be conducted
among the line and low management for
ensuring the importance of environmental
protection plan.
Statement (II): Environmental science is a
developing subject and the people
implementing environment strategies should remain up to date with the environmental control processes.
Ans: (A)
53. Statement (I): Metals having same
crystal structure will have greater solubility.
Statement (II): Differences in crystal
structure limits the solid solubility.
Ans: (A)
54. Statement (I): The tie line is constructed
across the two-phase region at the temperature
of the alloy.
Statement (II): The overall alloy
composition is located on the tie line.
Ans: (B)
55. Statement (I): Cross linked polymers may
be synthesized in which side-branch chains
are connected to the main ones.
Statement (II): Linear polymers are
those in which the repeat units are joined
together end to end in single chains.
Ans: (B)
56. Statement (I): Abrasive ceramics are
used to wear, grind, or cut away other
material, which necessarily is softer.
Statement (II): The prime requisite for
abrasive ceramic group of materials is
hardness or wear resistance and a high degree
of toughness is essential to ensure that the
abrasive particles do not easily fracture.
Ans: (D)
57. Statement (I): The prevention cost increase
with the introduction of a quality system and
may be a significant proportion of the total
quality costs.
Statement (II): Costs associated with
education and training are not included in
prevention costs.
Ans: (D)
58. Statement (I): An emulator is not a mixture
of hardware and software and it cannot be
used to test and debug the hardware and
software of an external system.
Statement (II): Part of the hardware of an
emulator is multiwire cable which connects
the host system to the system being
developed.
Ans: (D)
59. Statement (I): Agency-loyalty is acting to
fulfill one’s contractual duties to an employer.
Statement (II): Agency-loyalty is entirely a
matter of actions, whatever its motives.
Ans: (C)
60. Statement (I): An EIA is a study of the
probable changes in socio-economic and bio
physical characteristics of the environment
that may result from a proposed action.
Statement (II): The purposes of an EIA is to
help design projects, which do not disturb the
quality of the environment by examining
alternatives.
Ans: (B)
61. Which one of the following is not a
component of ‘Capital Receipts’?
(A) Market borrowing including special
bonds
(B) External loans raised by the Central
government from abroad
(C) Receipts from taxes on property and
capital transactions
(D) Provident Funds (State Provident Funds
and Publics Provident Fund)
Ans: (C)
62. Which one of the following statement is
correct with respect to the ‘societal
development’?
(A) Behaviour grows into habits, .habits into
tradition and 'tradition he comes custom
(B) Customs grow into mores and mores
grow into custom
(C) Behaviours grow into customs and
customs grow into traditions
(D) Folkways grow into tradition and
traditions grow into customs
Ans: (A)
63. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to ‘the convergence
theory’ on social change?
(A) The societal adaptive culture is changing
more slowly
(B) As societies become modernized, they
begin to resemble one another more
closely
(C) The developed countries shows more
growth in social changes than the less
developed countries
(D) Strong opposition by old people retards
the social change
Ans: (B)
64. With respect to the conduct and performance
of a company, ‘perfect competition’ refers to
(A) Large numbers of small firms producing
differentiated products
(B) Complete freedom in economic life and
absence of rivalry among firms
(C) Many companies selling similar products
with free entry
(D) Sole producer selling a distinct product
Ans: (B)
65. The cheapest method of marketing of
securities with the only cost incurred being on
sending ‘letters of rights’ to existing holders is
(A) Public issues through prospectus method
(B) Offer for sale method
(C) Rights issue
(D) Subscription by inside coterie method
Ans: (C)
66. ‘Fiscal policy’ means
(A) Balancing the revenue between and
expenditure
(B) Establishing equilibrium between demand
and supply of goods and services
(C) Use of taxation, public borrowing and
public expenditure by Government for
purposes of ‘stabilization’ or ‘development’
(D) Deficiency as an instrument of growth
Ans: (C)
67. Which of the following come under the
offerings of ‘MUDRA’ Bank?
1. Portfolio Credit Guarantee
2. Credit for large industries
3. MUDRA Card
4. Credit Enhancement
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (B)
68. Which of the following is/are the key reasons
for encouraging start up Entrepreneurship?
1. Innovations
2. Focusing on service industry
3. Bringing the values of proactively into
the society
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
69. Which of the following are the main
objectivities of Gold Monetization Scheme
launched in the country?
1. To monetize gold holdings in the country
2. To increase export of gold from the
country
3. To reduce India’s import bill
4. To meet the targets of reduction in fiscal
deficit
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Key: (A)
70. A person travelled by car 70 km towards north
to A then covered 30 km turning left to B.
Again he turned towards left and travelled 110
km to C. Then the cycled at the rate of 10
km/hour towards the starting point. The time
taken by him to reach the starting point from
C will be
(A) 3 hours
(B) 5 hours
(C) 7 hours
(D) 21 hours
Ans: (B)
71. A student purchases some books for Rs. 1600.
If he had bought 8 more books for the same
amount, each book would cost Rs 10 less. The
number of books he buys is
(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 34
(D) 36
Ans: (B)
72. A hemisphere depression is cut out from one
face of the cubical wooden block such that the
radius ‘r’ of the hemisphere is equal to half of
the edge of the cube. What will be the surface
area of the remaining solid?
(A) 2$r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 24 )$
(B) $r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 24 )$
(C) 2$r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 36 )$
(D) $r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 36 )$
Ans: (B)
73. A rod of length l is to be divided into two
parts, such that if 5 times the smaller portion
is added to half of the larger portion, it will
always be less than l.This can be achieved
by taking length of the larger portion more than
(A) $\frac { 9 } { 10 } \ell$
(B) $\frac { 7 } { 8 } \ell$
(C) $\frac { 6 } { 7 } \ell$
(D) $\frac { 5 } { 6 } \ell$
Ans: (A)
74. Which of the following conditions hold good
for a train which crosses the bridge of length
$\ell$ in time $t _ { 1 }$ and crosses another bridge of
length $\frac { \ell } { 2 }$ in time $t _ { 2 } ?$
$\begin{array} { l l } { \text { 1. } } & { \mathrm { t } _ { 2 } = \frac { \mathrm { t } _ { 1 } } { 2 } } \\ { \text { 2. } } & { 2 \mathrm { t } _ { 2 } > \mathrm { t } _ { 1 } } \\ { \text { 3. } } & { \mathrm { t } _ { 2 } < \frac { \mathrm { t } _ { 1 } } { 2 } } \end{array}$
4. Speed of train is $\frac { \ell } { 10 }$ if $t _ { 1 } - t _ { 2 } = 5$
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (B)
75. A tourist covers half of his journey by train at
60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30
km/h and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h.
Average speed of the tourist during the
journey is
(A) 36 km/h
(B) 33 km/h
(C) 24 km/h
(D) 18 km/h
Ans: (C)
76. In a lake, the tip of a bud of lotus is seen 10
cm above the surface of water. Forced by the
wind, it gradually moved, and just submerged
at a distance of 30cm. The depth of water at
the root of the lotus plant will be
(A) 40 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 60 cm
(D) 70 cm
Ans: (A)
77. A man sold a chair and a table together for Rs.
7,600, thereby making a profit of 25% on the
chair and 10% on the table. By selling them
together for Rs. 7,500 he would make a profit
of 10% on the chair and 20% on the table.
Then the cost price of chair and table will be
(A) Rs. 3000 and Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 3500 and Rs. 4000
(C) Rs. 3000 and Rs. 3500
(D) Rs. 3500 and Rs.3500
Ans: (C)
78. In two concentric circles, a chord length 80
cm of larger circle becomes a tangent to the
smaller circle whose radius is 9 cm. The
radius of the larger circle will be
(A) 13 cm
(B) 41 cm
(C) 52 cm
(D) 75 cm
Ans: (B)
79. Professional who breach the ‘duty of care’ are
liable for injuries their negligence causes.
This liability is commonly referred to as
(A) Professional offense
(B) Professional negligence
(C) Professional misdeed
(D) Professional malpractice
Ans: (B)
80. Information used in a business, generally
unknown to the public, that the company has
taken strong measures to keep confidential is
called
(A) A patient
(B) A copyright
(C) A trade secret
(D) A trade mark
Ans: (C)
81. Which one of the following tests can be
resorted to in order to check the structural
soundness conformance to the specified
standards, when all other tests fail?
(A) Destructive
(B) Non-destructive
(C) Full scale load
(D) Masonry
Ans: (B)
82. Which of the following are the sources of
variation in quality control process in
construction?
1. Material
2. Operator
3. Inspection activity
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Key: (A)
83. What is the break-even sale for the following
products?
PRELIMS EXAMINATION Questions with Detailed Solutions PAPER - I
GENERAL STUDIES AND ENGINEERING APTITUDE SET-A
01. Government of India had introduced the Consumer Protection Bill, 2015, in the Lok Sabha.
The Bill gives the right to consumers to
1. Seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.
2. File a complaint for overcharging or deceptive charging.
Which of the above is/are included in the Bill?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
01. Ans: (c)
02. Technology Promotion, Development and Utilization Programme implemented by Department of
Scientific and Industrial Research has which of the following components?
1. Industrial R & D Promotion Programme
2. Flagship Programme
3. Information Technology and e-Governance
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
02. Ans: (b)
03. The Olympic Flame symbolizes
(a) Unity among various nations of the world
(b) Speed, perfection and strength
(c) The development of sportsmanship
(d) Continuity between ancient and modern games
03. Ans: (d)
04. Consider the following statements:
1. IPDS strengthens the distribution network in urban areas while DDUGJY does the same in rural
areas.
2. DELP focuses to substitute LED bulbs for incandescent bulbs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
04. Ans: (c)
Integrated Power Development Scheme(IPDS) DDUGJY(Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana)
Domestic Efficiency Lighting Programme (DELP)
05. Consider the following statements:
Non-performing assets (NPAs) decline in value when
1. Demand revives in the economy.
2. Capacity utilization increases.
3. Capacity utilization, though substantive, is yet sub-optimal.
4. Capacity utilization decrease consequent upon merger of units.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
05. Ans: (c)
06. The meaning of ‘Carbon Footprint’ is described by the amount of
(a) Carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere as a result of the activities of a particular
individual, organization or community
(b) Greenhouse gases emitted by industries contributing to global warming
(c) Carbon emissions released by the burning of jet fuel
(d) Increase in the carbon content of the atmosphere due to the felling of trees
06. Ans: (a)
07. What is Crowdfunding?
(a) Money collected for public welfare projects by levying an entry fee to exhibitions, shows, etc.
(b) Money collected by charitable organizations by placing a donation box at prominent locations
(c) Money raised by innovators and inventors by launching their products and services through
the Internet
(d) Money raised by individuals by passing the hat around to onlookers at a street performance
07. Ans: (c)
08. The sum of squares of successive integers 8 to 16, both inclusive, will be
(a) 1126 (b) 1174
(c) 1292 (d) 1356
08. Ans: (d)
09. Consider a trapezoidal lamina ABCD, with AB parallel to DC, 6 cm apart; AB is 8 cm; CD is 12
cm; CD extends outwards by 1 cm from the foot of the perpendicular from B on DC.
The centre of gravity of the lamina will be
(a) Along AC at a height of 3 cm from DC
(b) Along BD at a height of 3 cm from DC
(c) Along the line joining the mid-point of AB to the mid-point of DC; at a height of 2.8 cm from
DC
(d) At the intersection point of AC and DB
09. Ans: (c)
10. A cantilever bema ABC is shown to a highly exaggerated vertical scale. Horizontally, AB is 2 m
long and BC is 0.6 m long. Loads act only in the region AB, and there are no loads in the region
BC. Under this load system, the deflection at B is 0.24 cm and the slope of the beam at B is theta,
where sin theta= 0.038. What is the deflection at D, which is midway between B and C?
(a) 0.2406 cm (b) 0.2514 cm
(c) 0.2530 cm (d) 0.2452 cm
10. Ans: (*)
11.Given that 0.8 is one root of the equation
$x ^ { 3 } - 0.6 x ^ { 2 } - 1.84 x + 1.344 = 0$
The other roots of this equation will be
(a) 1.1 and – 1.4 (b) –1.2 and 1.4
(c) 1.2 and –1.4 (d) –1.1 and 1.4
Ans: (c)
12. The equation, $x ^ { 3 } - 8 x ^ { 2 } + 37 x - 50 = 0$ is factored and it has $( 3 + 4 i )$ as one of its roots. What is the real root of this equation?
13. Circle A is 4$\mathrm { cm }$ in diameter, circle $\mathrm { B }$ is 5$\mathrm { cm }$ in diameter. Circle C has its circumference equal to
the sum of the circumferences of both $\mathrm { A }$ and $\mathrm { B }$ together. What will be the ratio of the area of circle
C, with respect to the area of circle A and circle B respectively?
(a) 5.0625 and 1.84 (b) 3.875 and 1.84
(c) 5.0625 and 3.24 (d) 3.875 and 3.24
13. Ans: (c)
14. The 12 digits on the face of a clock are to be represented employing contributions of only the
number 9 as either 9 or $\sqrt { 9 }$.The other prescribed conditions are (i) the least number of uses alone
are permitted; and (ii) when alternates are possible, use of 9 will be preferred over use of $\sqrt { 9 }$ which should be used minimally. How many times would $\sqrt { 9 }$ have to be used?
(a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 3
14. Ans: (b)
esegeneralstudies.epizy.com/
15.In a particular test, the marks scored by 4 candidates – A, B, C and D are as follows:
Marks obtained by A and B add to 100;
Marks obtained by C and D add up to those scored by A;
B scores 4 times of D;
D scores 10 marks less than C;
The marks obtained by C will be
(a) 30 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 25
15.Ans: (d)
16.In a project there are 9 activities: A, B, C, D which are sequential; E, F, G which are sequential: H,
K which are sequential. Also E, F, G run parallel to B, C, D; and H, K run parallel to A, B, C, D.
Besides these activity dependencies, it is also needful that B be completed before taking up G; A
and H be completed before taking up D and K. How many dummies are to be drawn on the activity
network?
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2
Ans: (c)
17. What is the form of the function f(x) for the following data?
$\begin{array} { | c | c | c | c | c | } \hline X & { 0 } & { 1 } & { 2 } & { 3 } \\ \hline f ( x ) & { 3 } & { 6 } & { 11 } & { 18 } \\ \hline \end{array}$
$( a ) x ^ { 2 } + 2 x + 3 \quad$ (b) $x ^ { 2 } - 2 x + 3$
18. Let the Eigenvector of the matrix $\left[ \begin{array} { c c } { 1 } & { 2 } \\ { 0 } & { 2 } \end{array} \right]$ be written in the form $\left[ \begin{array} { c } { 1 } \\ { a } \end{array} \right]$ and $\left[ \begin{array} { c } { 1 } \\ { b } \end{array} \right]$ . What is the value of (a + b)?
(a) 0$\quad$ (b) $\frac { 1 } { 2 }$
(c) 1 (d) 2
18. Ans: (b)
19. What is the cube root of 1468 to 3 decimal places?
(a) 11.340 (b) 11.353
(c) 11.365 (d) 11.382
19. Ans: (c)
20. Let $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { x } ) = \left\{ \begin{array} { c } { - \pi , \text { if } - \pi < \mathrm { x } \leq 0 } \\ { \pi , \text { if } 0 < \mathrm { x } \leq \pi } \end{array} \right.$ be a periodic function of period 2$\pi .$ The coefficient of $\sin 5 \mathrm { x }$ in the
Fourier series expansion of $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { x } )$ in the interval $[ - \pi , \pi ]$ is
21. What is the value of $( 1525 ) ^ { 0.2 }$ to 2 decimals places?
(a) 4.33 (b) 4.36
(c) 4.38 (d) 4.30
21. Ans: (c)
22.In the Laurent expansion of $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { z } ) = \frac { 1 } { ( \mathrm { z } - 1 ) ( \mathrm { z } - 2 ) }$ valid in the region $1 < | \mathrm { z } | < 2 ,$ the coefficient of
$\frac { 1 } { \mathrm { z } ^ { 2 } } \mathrm { is }$
(a) 0 (b)$\frac { 1 } { 2 }$
(c) 1 (d) –1
22. Ans: (d)
23.If $u = \log \left( \frac { x ^ { 2 } + y ^ { 2 } } { x + y } \right) ,$ what is the value of $x \frac { \partial u } { \partial x } + y \frac { \partial u } { \partial y } ?$
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) u (d) eu
23. Ans: (b)
24.What is the residue of the function $\frac { 1 - e ^ { 2 z } } { z ^ { 4 } }$ at its pole?
25. What is the maximum value of $z ,$ if $z = 10 x + 6$ y subject to the constraints
$3 x + y \leq 12,2 x + 5 y \leq 34 , x \geq 0 , y \geq 0 ?$
(a) 56 (b) 52
(c) 50 (d) 40
25. Ans: (a)
26. Which of the following concepts are relatable to income of members of the public while
considering public welfare?
1. Sensitivity of demand
2. Elasticity of demand
3. Sensitivity of expenditure
4. Elasticity of expenditure
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
26. Ans: (c)
27. Consider the following provisions regarding safety on highways, where major improvement works
may also be in progress:
1. Highly visible barricades to avoid falling of vehicles in deep interspaces ahead (including
drainages)
2. Wire-net provisions to ward off road slippages
3. Signages for wild-animals crossing (like deer, elephant, etc.)
4. Signages on minor gradients
Which of the above are relevant?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
27. Ans: (d)
28. A vehicle moving at a speed of 88 km/hr weighs 62293.5 N and its rolling resistance coefficient is
0.018. The rolling resistance of the vehicle is
(a) 1121.3 N (b) 1000.4 N
(c) 975.7 N (d) 845.6 N
28. Ans: (a)
Rolling Resistance=0.018 x 62293.5
29. For a vehicle travelling at 24 km/hr having a wheel radius of 0.305 m with overall gear ratio
G = 19.915, and when torque transmitted is 203.6 N.m, the engine speed and power are, nearly
(a) 4155 rpm and 88.6 kW (b) 4500 rpm and 88.6 kW
(c) 4155 rpm and 95.4 kW (d) 4500 rpm and 95.4 kW
29. Ans: (a)
30. A rod of length L, cross-section area A1
and modulus of elasticity E1, has been placed inside a tube
of length L, of cross-section area A2 and modulus of elasticity E2, and the two are firmly held by
end plates. The portion of the load P applied on the end plates shared by rod and tube, respectively,are
(a) $\frac { \mathrm { PA } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } }$ and $\frac { \mathrm { PA } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } } \quad$ (b) $\frac { \mathrm { PA } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } }$ and $\frac { \mathrm { PA } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } }$
(c) $\frac { \mathrm { PA } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } }$ and $\frac { \mathrm { P } \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } } \quad$ (d) $\frac { \mathrm { PA } _ { 1 } \mathrm { E } _ { 1 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } }$ and $\frac { \mathrm { P } \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } \mathrm { E } _ { 2 } } { \mathrm { A } _ { 1 } + \mathrm { A } _ { 2 } }$
30. Ans: (a)
31. A weight of 240 N is dropped on to a close-coiled helical spring made up of 18 mm spring steel
wire. The spring consists of 22 coils wound to a diameter of 180 mm. If the instantaneous
compression is 120 mm; what is the height of drop of the weight, given G = 88 x 103 N/mm2?
(a) 450 mm (b) 300 mm
(c) 250 mm (d) 150 mm
31. Ans: (d)
32. Consider the following statements regarding Ergonomic Design:
1. Reducing the stress on the spinal cord and providing for lesser fatigue-causing sitting
arrangements.
2. Arrangements of keys on the computer keyboard towards optimizing finger stress level.
3. Catering to increasing demand to produce more pleasing objects.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
32. Ans: (a)
33. Which type of output device creates coloured images which look and feel like photographs?
(a) Electrostatic plotter (b) Laser printer
(c) Dye sublimation printer (d) Inkjet plotter
33. Ans: (c)
34. Consider the following statements with reference to Six-Sigma:
1. It is a set of techniques and tools for process improvement.
2. It postulates that any process must not produce more than 3.4 defects per one million
opportunities.
3. It is an initiative of Motorola.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
34. Ans: (d)
35. Consider the following statements regarding a Grillage Foundation:
1. It is provided for heavily loaded isolated columns.
2. It is treated as a spread foundation.
3. It consists of two sets of perpendicularly placed steel columns.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
35. Ans: (d)
36. Consider the following statements regarding Insolation:
1. It is the solar radiation that reaches the Earth’s surface.
2. It is measured by the amount of solar energy received per square centimetre per minute.
3. It is the amount of solar energy absorbed by the stratosphere.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
36. Ans: (b)
37. Consider the following statements regarding Quality Circle:
1. It is a small group of people working in different areas of an organization with multiple
expertises.
2. It consists of people who volunteer themselves.
3. It is a human resource development technique.
4. It is a problem-solving forum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
37. Ans: (a)
38. Consider the following statements:
1. In work breakdown structure, top-down approach is adopted.
2. Duration along critical path is the shortest duration permissible.
3. PERT is probabilistic in its approach.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Ans: (d)
39. Let the sum of the squares of successive integers $0,1,2 , \ldots \ldots \ldots \ldots - 1 ,$ n be donated by S. Let the sum of the cubes of the same integers be denoted by C. It is desirable that $\frac { C } { \mathrm { S } } ,$ as n increases in steps of ‘unity’ from ‘zero’, is given by the series:
1. A committee of 4 is to be formed from among 4 girls and 5 boys. What is the probability that the committee will have number of boys less than number of girls? (A)2/9 (B)4/9 (C)4/5 (D)1/6 Ans:(D) 2. The solution of initial value problem: $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { x } } = 2 \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { t } } + \mathrm { u } ,$ where $\mathrm { u } ( \mathrm { x } , 0 ) = 6 \mathrm { e } ^ { - 3 \mathrm { x } }$ is (A) $u = 6 e ^ { - 3 x + 1 }$ (B) $u = 6 e ^ { - ( 2 x + 2 t ) }$ (C) $u = 6 e ^ { - ( 3 x + 2 t ) }$ (D) $u = 6 e ^ { - ( 3 x - 2 t ) }$ ans:c 3. Polar form of the Cauchy-Riemann equations is (A) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$ (B) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$ (C) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$ (D) $\frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = \mathrm { r } \frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \theta }$ and $\frac { \partial \mathrm { v } } { \partial \mathrm { r } } = - \frac { 1 } { \mathrm { r } } \frac { \partial \mathrm { u } } { \partial \theta }$ Ans:B 4. If $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { z } )$ has a pole of order n at $z = \mathrm { a } ,$ then Residue of function $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { z } )$ at a is (A) Res $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { a } ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n - 1 } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { x = a }$ (B) Res $\mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { a } ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n - 1 ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n - 1 } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { z = a }$ $( \mathrm { C } ) \operatorname { Res } \mathrm { f } ( \mathrm { a } ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { x = 0 }$ (D) Res $f ( a ) =$ $\frac { 1 } { ( n - 1 ) ! } \left\{ \frac { d ^ { n - 1 } } { d z ^ { n - 1 } } \left( ( z - a ) ^ { n } f ( z ) \right) \right\} _ { z = a }$ Ans:(D) 5.Consider following diagram: AC is a diameter of the large circle and AB=BC. The ratio of areas of the large circle to the small circle of a square is
6. Which term refers to a single person having authority to oversee all aspects of a product's production scheduling, inventory, dislocation and sales? (A) Project management (B) Product management (C) Commercial management (D) Venture management Ans: (B) 7. The lowest Eigen value of the $2 \times 2$ matrix $\left[ \begin{array} { c c } { 4 } & { 2 } \\ { 1 } & { 3 } \end{array} \right]$ is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5 Ans:(B) 8. Consider the following statements: 1. Mobile cranes are sophisticated machines which are designed for lifting efficiently 2. Mobile cranes are a versatile and reliable means of lifting on site Which of the above statements is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (B) 9. Which of the following statements are correct for portable step-ladders? 1. Used on working platforms to gain height above the protected edge 2. Used in the fully opened position 3. Should be of a length that ensures a person's feet are not positioned any higher than the second top rung Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (D) 10. Consider the following Repeat Unit Structure: What is polymer? (A) Poly(amide-imide) (B) Polyacrylonitrile (C) Polybutadiene (D) Polyethylene Ans:(B)
11. Which of the following measures is/are correct for using Mobile Equipment Working Platform (MEWP)? 1. Tyres are properly inflated and air filled 2. SWL to be marked in platforms as identification for carrying loads (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (C) 12. Ozone layer present in the atmosphere protects life on earth by not permitting harmful radiations present in the sunlight to penetrate through it. Ozone layer is formed by the reaction of (A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) on oxygen (O2) (B) Chlorine (Cl) on oxygen (O2) (C) Solar Ultraviolet rays on Oxygen (O2) (D) Chlorine nitrate (ClNO3) on oxygen (O2) Ans: (C) 13. The insert command is used in 'Auto CAD to insert (A) Objects in the current life (B) Objects in any life (C) Blocks in any drawing file (D) Blocks and wblocks in the current drawing Ans: (D) 14. A cone resting on its base in horizontal plane (HP) is cut by a plane inclined to the axis and parallel to one of its generators, the sectional view will be (A) Ellipse (B) Parabola (C) Hyperbola (D) Circle Ans: (B) 15. Consider the following components: 1. Knowledge of psychology 2. Knowledge of the theory of variation 3. Knowledge of process 4. Knowledge of the system and the theory of optimization Which of the above components comprise the basis of Deming’s Systems of Profound Knowledge? (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (A) 16. Consider the following statements: 1. Greenfield Privatization or Incremental Privatization denotes encouragement to private sector in areas hitherto reserved for Public Enterprises 2. Cold Privatization refers to measures taken to distance Public Enterprises from the Government Which of the above statements is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (A) 17. Which of the following steps are involved in the product improvement cycle? 1. Sell it in the market 2. Determine quality of performance 3. Design the product based on customer needs 4. Test it in the laboratory Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (D) 18. Who is responsible for establishing, documenting and maintaining procedures for post-production handling functions such as storage, packaging and delivery? (A) Production Manager (B) Marketing Manager (C) Vendor (D) Quality Supervisor Ans: (C) 19. A unit produces packing boxes. Out of hourly production of 4,000 boxes, 20 were found to be non-conforming. If the inspector randomly chooses a box from an hour's production, the probability of it being non-conforming is (A) 0.02 (B) 0.10 (C) 0.005 (D) 0.05 Ans: (C) 20. Which of the following are relevant factors regarding quality in service sector? 1. Timeliness of service 2. Customer participation 3. Company personnel motivation 4. Company culture Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (C)
21. Which one of the following is a viable alternative to term-loans and are instruments for raising debt finance by large publicly traded firms? (A) Shares (B) Debentures (C) Asset loans (D) Gold loans Ans: (B) 22. Which one of the following makes the design, assembly and operation of complex systems feasible and practical? (A) System Architecture (B) Modularization (C) Standardization (D) Composition Ans: (B) 23. Which one of the following schedules shows the specific activities necessary to complete an activity or work package? (A) Project schedule (B) Master schedule (C) Task schedule (D) Internal schedule Ans: (A) 24. In stable ceramic crystal structure, a cation is surrounded by three anions in the form of a planar equilateral triangle. The ratio of the cation-anion radius for the crystal is nearly (A) 0.16 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.32 (D) 0.41 Ans: (A) 25. During tensile testing of a material, if cross sectional area of the specimen is doubled, the load required to produce the same elongation shall be (A) Double (B) Half (C) Same (D) Four times Ans: (A) 26. When two or more chemically different monomers are polymerized to form a cross link polymer along with some byproduct such as water, the process is known as (A) Crystallographic Polymerization (B) Addition polymerization (C) Copolymerization (D) Condensation polymerization Ans: (D) 27. The number of atoms per unit length whose centres lie on the direction vector for a specific crystallographic direction is called (A) Linear density (B) Theoretical density (C) Atomic density (D) Avogadro number Ans: (A) 28. Which of the following features of atoms determine the degree to which the solute atoms dissolve in the solvent atoms? 1. Atomic size factor 2. Crystal structure 3. Electronegativity (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (D) 29. A state for ionic compounds wherein there is the exact ratio of cations to anions as predicted by the chemical formula is (A) Electroneutrality (B) Stoichiometry (C) Equiliometry (D) Frankel defect Ans: (B) 30. The capacity of a material to absorb energy when it is deformed elastically and then, upon unloading, to have this energy recovered is called (A) Ductility (B) Tensile strength (C) Elasticity (D) Resilience Ans: (D)
31. In which one of the following phase transformations, there are no compositional alternations? (A) Incongruent transformations (B) Congruent transformations (C) Non-equilibrium transformations (D) Equilibrium transformations Ans: (B) 32. In a simple cubic structure, atomic power factor is nearly (A) 0.9 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.3 Ans: (C) 33. Which of the following are the advantages of coding audiovisual objects? 1. It allows interaction with the content 2. It improves reusability and coding the content 3. It allows content-based scalability (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (D) 34. The transmission of real-time streams across networks uses Bandwidth Allocation Mechanism (BAM), which is based on (A) Stream peak rate (B) Bucket rate (C) Token bucket depth (D) Packet size Ans: (D) 35. The quality of service provided in a computer network is (A) Presentation layer issue (B) Session layer issue (C) Network layer issue (D) Data link layer issue Ans: (D) 36. The Pre-echo PE distortions in audio signal represents the (A) Theoretical limit on compressibility of particular signals (B) Imaginary components of a signal (C) Critical band analysis of a signal (D) Histogram of the signals Ans: (A) 37. In a computer network, a point-to-point transmission, with one sender and one receiver is called (A) Unicasting (B) Multicasing (C) Broadcasting (D) Internetworking Ans: (A) 38. The Protocol (http), the DNS name of the host, and the file name is identified through (A) Uniform Resource Locator (B) Web Browser (C) Web Server (D) IP address Ans: (A) 39. The traditional way to handle forms and other interactive Web pages is a system called (A) Graphical User Interface (B) Common Gateway Interface (C) Text Based User Interface (D) Command Line Interface Ans: (A) 40. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) which encrypts the data by using a block cipher is used in (A) FTP security (B) e-mail security (C) Browser security (D) Bluetooth security Ans: (B)
41. The core elements of high-level programming languages are (A) Keywords, Expression and Punctuation (B) Functions, Keywords and Operators (C) Keywords, Operators and Punctuation (D) Functions, Expressions and Operators Ans: (B) 42. The philosophical study of beliefs and knowledge is better known as (A) Ontology (B) Epistemology (C) Entomology (D) Etymology Ans: (B) 43. One branch of ethical philosophy claims that is possible to know right from wrong or good from bad in a very clear and objective manner, is called (A) Non-Cognitivism (B) Ethical Pluralism (C) Cognitivism (D) Utilitarianism Ans: (B) 44. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Engineering Ethics’ 1. It is the activity of understanding moral values 2. It resolves the moral issues and justifies moral judgments 3. It would refer to the set of specifically moral problems and issues related to Engineering. Which of the above statements are correct? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only Ans: (D) 45. A situation where very high prices are charged from customers for a limited period of time is known as (A) Gouging (B) Zipping (B) Bamboozing (D) Hoodwinking Ans: (A) 46. Consider the following steps for an individual regarding preparation for disclosure of unethical behavior: 1. Study and document the facts and formulate a plan for an appeal 2. Take up the matter with higher management 3. Discuss the matter with immediate supervisor 4. If the internal appeal does not resolve the conflict, then he should notify the company that he intends to continue with an external review of the problem. What is the correct sequence of order of the above steps? (A) 2, 3, 1 and 4 (B) 1, 3, 2 and 4 (C) 3, 2, 4 and 1 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (B) 47. Which of the following are the attributes of a profession? 1. The work requires sophisticated skills, use of judgment and exercise of discretion 2. Membership in the profession does not require extensive formal education as well as practical training 3. There are set standards for admission to the profession and conduct for members 4. Significant public good results from practice of the profession. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (C) 48. What are the core qualities of a professional practitioner? 1. Integrity both with themselves and with others 2. Independent to be free of secondary interests with other parties 3. Competence 4. Discretion-care with communications Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 and 4 only Ans: (A) 49. When should whistle blowing be attempted? 1. There must be a clear and great harm that can be avoided 2. The whistleblower must be in a clear position to report on the problem 3. The whistleblower must have a reasonable chance of success in stopping the harmful activity 4. The whistleblower feels that all other lines of action within the context of the organization have been explored and shut off Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only Ans: (B) 50. Which of the following are the salient features of the patent Act 1970? 1. It codifies inventors which are not patentable 2. It provides for endorsement of patent with the words ‘license of right’ 3. It provides for revocations of patents in public interest 4. It has provision for validity period also for the patents Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only Ans: (A)
Directions: Each of the next Ten (10) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Codes: (A) Both, Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I) (B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I) (C) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (D) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
51. Statement. (I): All projects have constraints or limitations that inhibit their ability to reach goals and objectives. Statement (II): Time and money are universal constraints of projects. Ans: (A) 52. Statement (I): Training should be conducted among the line and low management for ensuring the importance of environmental protection plan. Statement (II): Environmental science is a developing subject and the people implementing environment strategies should remain up to date with the environmental control processes. Ans: (A) 53. Statement (I): Metals having same crystal structure will have greater solubility. Statement (II): Differences in crystal structure limits the solid solubility. Ans: (A) 54. Statement (I): The tie line is constructed across the two-phase region at the temperature of the alloy. Statement (II): The overall alloy composition is located on the tie line. Ans: (B) 55. Statement (I): Cross linked polymers may be synthesized in which side-branch chains are connected to the main ones. Statement (II): Linear polymers are those in which the repeat units are joined together end to end in single chains. Ans: (B) 56. Statement (I): Abrasive ceramics are used to wear, grind, or cut away other material, which necessarily is softer. Statement (II): The prime requisite for abrasive ceramic group of materials is hardness or wear resistance and a high degree of toughness is essential to ensure that the abrasive particles do not easily fracture. Ans: (D) 57. Statement (I): The prevention cost increase with the introduction of a quality system and may be a significant proportion of the total quality costs. Statement (II): Costs associated with education and training are not included in prevention costs. Ans: (D) 58. Statement (I): An emulator is not a mixture of hardware and software and it cannot be used to test and debug the hardware and software of an external system. Statement (II): Part of the hardware of an emulator is multiwire cable which connects the host system to the system being developed. Ans: (D) 59. Statement (I): Agency-loyalty is acting to fulfill one’s contractual duties to an employer. Statement (II): Agency-loyalty is entirely a matter of actions, whatever its motives. Ans: (C) 60. Statement (I): An EIA is a study of the probable changes in socio-economic and bio physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a proposed action. Statement (II): The purposes of an EIA is to help design projects, which do not disturb the quality of the environment by examining alternatives. Ans: (B)
61. Which one of the following is not a component of ‘Capital Receipts’? (A) Market borrowing including special bonds (B) External loans raised by the Central government from abroad (C) Receipts from taxes on property and capital transactions (D) Provident Funds (State Provident Funds and Publics Provident Fund) Ans: (C) 62. Which one of the following statement is correct with respect to the ‘societal development’? (A) Behaviour grows into habits, .habits into tradition and 'tradition he comes custom (B) Customs grow into mores and mores grow into custom (C) Behaviours grow into customs and customs grow into traditions (D) Folkways grow into tradition and traditions grow into customs Ans: (A) 63. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to ‘the convergence theory’ on social change? (A) The societal adaptive culture is changing more slowly (B) As societies become modernized, they begin to resemble one another more closely (C) The developed countries shows more growth in social changes than the less developed countries (D) Strong opposition by old people retards the social change Ans: (B) 64. With respect to the conduct and performance of a company, ‘perfect competition’ refers to (A) Large numbers of small firms producing differentiated products (B) Complete freedom in economic life and absence of rivalry among firms (C) Many companies selling similar products with free entry (D) Sole producer selling a distinct product Ans: (B) 65. The cheapest method of marketing of securities with the only cost incurred being on sending ‘letters of rights’ to existing holders is (A) Public issues through prospectus method (B) Offer for sale method (C) Rights issue (D) Subscription by inside coterie method Ans: (C) 66. ‘Fiscal policy’ means (A) Balancing the revenue between and expenditure (B) Establishing equilibrium between demand and supply of goods and services (C) Use of taxation, public borrowing and public expenditure by Government for purposes of ‘stabilization’ or ‘development’ (D) Deficiency as an instrument of growth Ans: (C) 67. Which of the following come under the offerings of ‘MUDRA’ Bank? 1. Portfolio Credit Guarantee 2. Credit for large industries 3. MUDRA Card 4. Credit Enhancement Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (B) 68. Which of the following is/are the key reasons for encouraging start up Entrepreneurship? 1. Innovations 2. Focusing on service industry 3. Bringing the values of proactively into the society Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (D) 69. Which of the following are the main objectivities of Gold Monetization Scheme launched in the country? 1. To monetize gold holdings in the country 2. To increase export of gold from the country 3. To reduce India’s import bill 4. To meet the targets of reduction in fiscal deficit Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only Key: (A) 70. A person travelled by car 70 km towards north to A then covered 30 km turning left to B. Again he turned towards left and travelled 110 km to C. Then the cycled at the rate of 10 km/hour towards the starting point. The time taken by him to reach the starting point from C will be (A) 3 hours (B) 5 hours (C) 7 hours (D) 21 hours Ans: (B)
71. A student purchases some books for Rs. 1600. If he had bought 8 more books for the same amount, each book would cost Rs 10 less. The number of books he buys is (A) 30 (B) 32 (C) 34 (D) 36 Ans: (B) 72. A hemisphere depression is cut out from one face of the cubical wooden block such that the radius ‘r’ of the hemisphere is equal to half of the edge of the cube. What will be the surface area of the remaining solid? (A) 2$r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 24 )$ (B) $r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 24 )$ (C) 2$r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 36 )$ (D) $r ^ { 2 } ( \pi + 36 )$ Ans: (B) 73. A rod of length l is to be divided into two parts, such that if 5 times the smaller portion is added to half of the larger portion, it will always be less than l.This can be achieved by taking length of the larger portion more than (A) $\frac { 9 } { 10 } \ell$ (B) $\frac { 7 } { 8 } \ell$ (C) $\frac { 6 } { 7 } \ell$ (D) $\frac { 5 } { 6 } \ell$ Ans: (A) 74. Which of the following conditions hold good for a train which crosses the bridge of length $\ell$ in time $t _ { 1 }$ and crosses another bridge of length $\frac { \ell } { 2 }$ in time $t _ { 2 } ?$ $\begin{array} { l l } { \text { 1. } } & { \mathrm { t } _ { 2 } = \frac { \mathrm { t } _ { 1 } } { 2 } } \\ { \text { 2. } } & { 2 \mathrm { t } _ { 2 } > \mathrm { t } _ { 1 } } \\ { \text { 3. } } & { \mathrm { t } _ { 2 } < \frac { \mathrm { t } _ { 1 } } { 2 } } \end{array}$ 4. Speed of train is $\frac { \ell } { 10 }$ if $t _ { 1 } - t _ { 2 } = 5$ Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only Ans: (B)
75. A tourist covers half of his journey by train at 60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30 km/h and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. Average speed of the tourist during the journey is (A) 36 km/h (B) 33 km/h (C) 24 km/h (D) 18 km/h Ans: (C) 76. In a lake, the tip of a bud of lotus is seen 10 cm above the surface of water. Forced by the wind, it gradually moved, and just submerged at a distance of 30cm. The depth of water at the root of the lotus plant will be (A) 40 cm (B) 50 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 70 cm Ans: (A) 77. A man sold a chair and a table together for Rs. 7,600, thereby making a profit of 25% on the chair and 10% on the table. By selling them together for Rs. 7,500 he would make a profit of 10% on the chair and 20% on the table. Then the cost price of chair and table will be (A) Rs. 3000 and Rs. 4000 (B) Rs. 3500 and Rs. 4000 (C) Rs. 3000 and Rs. 3500 (D) Rs. 3500 and Rs.3500 Ans: (C) 78. In two concentric circles, a chord length 80 cm of larger circle becomes a tangent to the smaller circle whose radius is 9 cm. The radius of the larger circle will be (A) 13 cm (B) 41 cm (C) 52 cm (D) 75 cm Ans: (B) 79. Professional who breach the ‘duty of care’ are liable for injuries their negligence causes. This liability is commonly referred to as (A) Professional offense (B) Professional negligence (C) Professional misdeed (D) Professional malpractice Ans: (B) 80. Information used in a business, generally unknown to the public, that the company has taken strong measures to keep confidential is called (A) A patient (B) A copyright (C) A trade secret (D) A trade mark Ans: (C)
81. Which one of the following tests can be resorted to in order to check the structural soundness conformance to the specified standards, when all other tests fail? (A) Destructive (B) Non-destructive (C) Full scale load (D) Masonry Ans: (B) 82. Which of the following are the sources of variation in quality control process in construction? 1. Material 2. Operator 3. Inspection activity Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only Key: (A) 83. What is the break-even sale for the following products?
(A) Rs. 90,000 (B) Rs. 80,000 (C) Rs. 60,000 (D) Rs. 40,000 Ans: (A) 84. Which of the following approaches are correct regarding total quality? 1. Opportunity to improve 2. Adoption requires little change 3. React to competitive threats Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (D) 85. Which of the following are constraints to the use of TQM in construction process? 1. A transient labour force 2. The construction process is relatively short in duration 3. Hierarchical and vertical organization structure 4. The construction process has not focused on the detailed needs of the customer Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 3 and 4 only Ans: (A) 86. BOD of a waste water sample is estimated to be 180 mg/1. Assuming 4 mg/1 BOD can be consumed in the BOD bottle, the volume of undiluted sample to be added to a 300 ml bottle is nearly (A) 6.7 ml (B) 5.6 ml (C) 4.4 ml (D) 3.3 ml Ans: (A) 87. Venturi scrubber, a device used to remove particulate matter from the atmosphere, works on the principle of (A) Settling by gravitational force (B) Removal by centrifugal force (C) Removal by electrically charged particles (D) Removal by atomized water vapour Ans: (D) 88. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is aimed to help (A) Estimate future needs of the society (B) Smooth implementation of a project (C) Cope with rapid increase in population (D) Resource conservation Ans: (B) 89. Which one of the following is a terrestrial type of ecosystem? (A) Limnetic (B) Estuary (C) Prairie (D) Reefs Ans: (C) 90. What are the limitations of solar energy? 1. Collecting solar energy over large areas and converting it to other forms that can be conveniently transported, stored and used in existing equipment is not economical 2. Low density of solar energy as compared to coal, oil and gas 3. Its major applications are photo thermal conversion, solar water heating, green housing technology and photo voltaic conversion Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only Ans: (B) 91. Acid rain results when gaseous emissions of sulfur oxides $\left( \mathrm { SO } _ { x } \right)$ and nitrogen oxides $\left( \mathrm { NO } _ { x } \right)$ interact with water vapour and (A) Moonlight, and are chemically converted to strong acidic compounds such as sulfuric acid $\left( \mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { SO } _ { 4 } \right)$ and nitric acid $\left( \mathrm { HNO } _ { 3 } \right)$ (B) Sunlight, and are chemically converted to strong acidic compounds such as sulfuric acid $\left( \mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { SO } _ { 4 } \right)$ and nitric acid $\left( \mathrm { HNO } _ { 3 } \right)$ (C) Moonlight, and are chemically converted to weak acidic compounds such as sulfuric acid $\left( \mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { SO } _ { 4 } \right)$ and nitric acid (HNO $_ { 3 } )$ (D) Sunlight, and are chemically converted to weak acidic compounds such as sulfuric acid $\left( \mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { SO } _ { 4 } \right)$ and nitric acid $\left( \mathrm { HNO } _ { 3 } \right)$ Ans: $\quad$ (B)
92. The ‘Minamata Tragedy’ was caused by the eating of fish growing in the Minamata Bay contaminated with (A) Peroxy alylnitrate (B) Methyl isocyanate (C) Potassium cyanide (D) Methylmercury Ans: (D) 93. What are the advantages of Biomass as a source of energy? 1. Its storage and transportation is possible 2. It is ecologically safe and is inoffensive 3. Can be developed with present man and material abilities 4. Low capital input required Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (A) 94. Consider the following data for a domestic biogas plant: Number of cows $= 5$ Retention time $= 20$ days Temperature $= 30 ^ { \circ } \mathrm { C }$ Dry matter consumed $= 2 \mathrm { kg } / \mathrm { day }$ Bry matter consumer $= 28 \mathrm { MJ } / \mathrm { m } ^ { 3 }$ Density of dry material in fluid $= 50 \mathrm { kg } / \mathrm { m } ^ { 3 }$ The power available from the digester will be nearly (A) 16.2$\mathrm { MJ } / \mathrm { day }$ (B) 24.3$\mathrm { MJ } / \mathrm { day }$ (C) 32.3$\mathrm { MJ } / \mathrm { day }$ (D) 48.6$\mathrm { MJ } / \mathrm { day }$ Ans:(C) 95. The best tool to ensure that there is neither piling up of stocks nor shortage of materials in a project to run it economically is (A) Economic order quantity (B) ABC Analysis (C) Inventory Control and Management (D) Gantt Chart Method Ans: (A) 96. A machine is expected to generate cash saving (after-tax) of Rs. 50,000 per annum over a period of 5 years. Salvage value of machine is 40% of the original cost. If accounting rate of return is 20%, cost of two such machines will be (A) Rs. 78,125 (B) Rs.1,56,250 (C) Rs. 3,12,500 (D) Rs. 6,25,000 Ans: (B) 97. It is expected to receive Rs. 5,000 annually for 3 years with each receipt occurring at the end of the year. With a discount rate of 10%, the present value of the annuity will be nearly (A) Rs. 12,435 (B) Rs. 9,945 (C) Rs. 4,975 (D) Rs. 2,487 Ans: (D) 98. In a project life cycle, the maximum percentage of effort is done in (A) Concept phase (B) Definition phase (C) Planning and organizing phase (D) Implementation phase Ans: (D) 99. In progress of a project, the percentage of error will be less in (A) Definitive cost estimate (B) Detailed estimate (C) Preliminary estimate (D) Study estimate Ans: (B) 100. In principle, the network should not be made complex. No control system, for that matter, can operate unless it is kept simple. This principle is called (A) CPM (B) PERT (C) KISS (D) GERT Ans: (C)
